In John 17:5, Jesus asked his Father to “glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.”
The Bible teaches that God shares His glory with no one.
(Isa 42:8 NIV) “I am the LORD; that is my name! I will not give my glory to another or my praise to idols.
Muslim : Jesus was glorified only in God’s timeless knowledge
Muslims have explained that this verse simply shows that Jesus was glorified by God in his timeless knowledge before the creation of the world.
This cannot be the right interpretation. Firstly, the words ‘I had’ is used. It is not something abstract in God’s mind, but something Jesus actually possessed. Secondly, the words “I had” and not “I have” is used. If Jesus was gloried only in God’s knowledge, and this glorified knowledge existed even before the world began, then why did Jesus use “I had” implying that he no longer did not have it when he was asking. The fact that Jesus asked his Father to glorify him at that point also showed that he did not have the glory that he used to have. How would the Muslim explain this? A Christian has no difficulty because we believe that Jesus emptied himself of many things before he came to this world. Thirdly, the words ‘with thee’ is used. This does not sound like foreknowledge? Jesus was essentially saying either, “the glory I had when I was with you” or “the glory I was sharing or experiencing with you”.
Muslim : Jesus was only spiritually created before the world began (just like everyone else).
If everyone else was spiritually created, why did Jesus say that he existed even before Abraham?